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The ATT2 exam has 100 questions and runs 2 hours.
These 10 free ATT2 questions are organized by exam domain, so you can see how each part of the Aggregate Testing Technician - Level 2 blueprint is tested. Reveal the answer and explanation under each question.
The test request calls for loose bulk density under ASTM C29/C29M for aggregate with a nominal maximum size of 50 mm. A technician selects jigging because the aggregate is larger than 37.5 mm. Which filling procedure actually matches the requested result?
Correct answer: B - Fill by shoveling from no more than 50 mm above the rim, without consolidating the aggregate.
An ASTM C131 specimen contains 2,500 g passing 19.0 mm and retained on 12.5 mm, plus 2,500 g passing 12.5 mm and retained on 9.5 mm. Select the matching steel charge.
Correct answer: D - 11 spheres totaling 4,584 ± 25 g
At the end of the prescribed ASTM C88 cycles, an aggregate specimen is being washed to remove sulfate. Barium chloride produces the same faint cloudiness in the latest wash-water sample as in an equal sample of unused supply water tested the same way. What does this comparison establish?
Correct answer: A - The sulfate-removal endpoint is satisfied; the specimen can proceed to final drying and quantitative examination.
An ASTM C142 specimen has soaked in distilled water for 24 hours. Some suspect particles break down when rolled and squeezed between the thumb and forefinger; several discolored particles remain intact. How should those intact particles be treated?
Correct answer: C - Leave them in the specimen and proceed with the prescribed wet-sieving, without applying stronger force.
During an ASTM C123 separation using a tetrabromoethane-based heavy liquid, the fume hood's low-airflow alarm activates and the exhaust fan is found to have stopped. Pouring has ceased, there is no spill, and the vessel can be safely capped. What is the appropriate immediate response?
Correct answer: B - Cap the vessel, report the failure, and suspend transfers until effective local exhaust is restored.
After the specified settling period in an ASTM D2419-14 sand equivalent test, the corrected sand reading is 4.1 in. and the clay reading is 6.7 in. A comparison material tested under the same preparation and test conditions has SE 48. Which reported result and interpretation are justified?
Correct answer: C - SE 62; the specimen has less clay-like material relative to sand than the comparison material.
Two fine-aggregate sources give ASTM C1252 Method C void contents of 47.2% and 42.6%. Their as-received gradations differ substantially. The purchasing engineer wants to know whether the first source has less rounded, rougher particles. How should the laboratory separate the grading effect from the particle-shape and texture effects?
Correct answer: A - Use Method A on both sources after preparing its prescribed standard grading, then compare their uncompacted void contents.
During final processing of a referee ASTM C535 test, the discharge is first separated on a 4.75-mm (No. 4) sieve. The material passing that sieve is then screened on a 1.70-mm (No. 12) sieve. Which aggregate must be washed and dried to obtain the final retained mass?
Correct answer: D - Both the No. 4 retained material and the No. 12 retained material from screening the finer portion.
A project specifies ASTM D4791-10 Method B results by particle count. The representative size fractions have been prepared, and the clean particles are surface-damp but separate freely and can be measured accurately. The drying oven is occupied. Which preparation decision is supported by the method?
Correct answer: C - Proceed with dimensional classification and counting; oven drying is not required for a count-based determination.
A clean coarse-aggregate particle has a rough natural fracture with sharp edges covering 35% of its maximum projected cross-sectional area. It also has two separate crusher nicks, each covering 15% of that area; its other surfaces are rounded. Under ASTM D5821, how many qualifying fractured faces does this particle have?
Correct answer: A - One: the natural fracture qualifies, but neither individual nick meets the face-area requirement.
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